Prepare CCAK Exam Questions [2025] Recently Updated Questions
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The CCAK certification exam is a vendor-neutral and globally recognized credential that validates the knowledge and skills of individuals in the field of cloud auditing. It covers various aspects of cloud computing, including governance, risk management, data security, compliance, and auditing. Individuals who pass CCAK exam are able to demonstrate that they possess the necessary knowledge and skills to audit cloud environments effectively.
ISACA CCAK (Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge) exam is a globally recognized certification for professionals seeking to advance their cloud auditing knowledge. Launched in June 2020, this certification is designed to bridge the gap between cloud computing and auditing, ensuring that professionals have the skills and knowledge required to effectively manage cloud infrastructure and applications.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is an example of availability technical impact?
- A. A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database
- B. The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.
- C. An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack.
- D. A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer's cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An example of availability technical impact is a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack that renders the customer's cloud inaccessible for 24 hours. Availability technical impact refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data and services from disruption or denial. Availability is one of the three security properties of an information system, along with confidentiality and integrity.
Option A is an example of availability technical impact because it shows how a DDoS attack, which is a type of cyberattack that overwhelms a system or network with malicious traffic and prevents legitimate users from accessing it, can cause a severe and prolonged disruption of the customer's cloud services. Option A also implies that the customer's organization depends on the availability of its cloud services for its core business operations.
The other options are not examples of availability technical impact. Option B is an example of confidentiality technical impact, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Option B shows how a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server, which is a type of data leakage or exposure attack that exploits the lack of proper security controls on a system or network, can cause a violation of the privacy and security of the customer's data. Option C is an example of integrity technical impact, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Option C shows how an administrator inadvertently clicking on phish bait, which is a type of social engineering or phishing attack that tricks a user into clicking on a malicious link or attachment, can expose the company to a ransomware attack, which is a type of malware or encryption attack that locks or encrypts the data and demands a ransom for its release. Option D is also an example of integrity technical impact, as it shows how a hacker using a stolen administrator identity, which is a type of identity theft or impersonation attack that exploits the credentials or privileges of a legitimate user to access or manipulate a system or network, can alter the discount percentage in the product database, which is a type of data tampering or corruption attack that affects the accuracy and reliability of the data. References :=
* OWASP Risk Rating Methodology | OWASP Foundation1
* OEE Factors: Availability, Performance, and Quality | OEE2
* The Effects of Technological Developments on Work and Their ...
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?
- A. Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.
- B. Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider.
- C. The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements.
- D. Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit would be that the application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures. This finding would indicate that the application is vulnerable to various threats and attacks, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, injection, cross-site scripting, denial-of-service, etc. This finding would also imply that the application does not comply with the security standards and best practices for cloud services, such as ISO/IEC 27017:20151, CSA Cloud Controls Matrix2, or NIST SP 800-1463. This finding would require immediate remediation and improvement of the application security posture, as well as the implementation of security controls and tests throughout the DevOps process.
Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed (A) would be a significant finding of an application security and DevOps audit, but not the most critical one. This finding would indicate that the organization is not aware or informed of the security requirements and expectations for cloud services, as well as the gaps or issues that may affect their compliance or performance. This finding would require regular review and analysis of the certifications with global security standards specific to cloud, such as ISO/IEC 270014, CSA STAR Certification, or FedRAMP Authorization, as well as the assessment of the impact of noted findings on the organization's risk profile and business objectives.
Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider (B) would be a serious finding of an application security and DevOps audit, but not the most critical one. This finding would indicate that the cloud service provider failed to ensure the availability, confidentiality, and integrity of the cloud services and data that they provide to the organization. This finding would require investigation and resolution of the root cause and impact of the incident, as well as the implementation of preventive and corrective measures to avoid recurrence. This finding would also require review and verification of the contractual terms and conditions between the organization and the cloud service provider, as well as the service level agreements (SLAs) and recovery time objectives (RTOs) for the cloud services.
The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements © would be an important finding of an application security and DevOps audit, but not the most critical one. This finding would indicate that the organization is not following a consistent and systematic approach to manage and monitor its cloud compliance with regulatory requirements, such as GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, etc. This finding would require adoption and implementation of a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements, such as COBIT, NIST Cybersecurity Framework, or CIS Controls, as well as the alignment and integration of these frameworks with the DevOps process.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is a detective control that may be identified in a Software as a Service (SaaS) service provider?
- A. Incident management
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Privileged access monitoring
- D. Data encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A detective control is a type of internal control that seeks to uncover problems in a company's processes once they have occurred1. Examples of detective controls include physical inventory checks, reviews of account reports and reconciliations, as well as assessments of current controls1. Detective controls use platform telemetry to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potentially malicious activity in the cloud environment2.
In a Software as a Service (SaaS) service provider, privileged access monitoring is a detective control that can help identify unauthorized or suspicious activities by users who have elevated permissions to access or modify cloud resources, data, or configurations. Privileged access monitoring can involve logging, auditing, alerting, and reporting on the actions performed by privileged users3. This can help detect security incidents, compliance violations, or operational errors in a timely manner and enable appropriate responses.
Data encryption, incident management, and network segmentation are examples of preventive controls, which are designed to prevent problems from occurring in the first place. Data encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data by transforming it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key1. Incident management is a process that aims to restore normal service operations as quickly as possible after a disruption or an adverse event4. Network segmentation divides a network into smaller subnetworks that have different access levels and security policies, reducing the attack surface and limiting the impact of a breach1.
References:
Detective controls - SaaS Lens - docs.aws.amazon.com3, section on Privileged access monitoring Detective controls | Cloud Architecture Center | Google Cloud2, section on Detective controls Internal control: how do preventive and detective controls work?4, section on SaaS Solutions to Support Internal Control Detective Control: Definition, Examples, Vs. Preventive Control1, section on What Is a Detective Control?
NEW QUESTION # 40
An organization that is utilizing a community cloud is contracting an auditor to conduct a review on behalf of the group of organizations within the cloud community. Of the following, to whom should the auditor report the findings?
- A. Cloud service provider
- B. Public
- C. Management of the organization being audited
- D. Shareholders and interested parties
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the auditor should report the findings to the management of the organization being audited, as they are the primary stakeholders and decision makers for the audit. The management is responsible for ensuring that the cloud service provider meets the contractual obligations and service level agreements, as well as the security and compliance requirements of the community cloud. The auditor should also communicate with the cloud service provider and other relevant parties, such as regulators or customers, as appropriate, but the final report should be addressed to the management of the organization being audited. Reference: ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 17
NEW QUESTION # 41
The Cloud Octagon Model was developed to support organizations':
- A. risk treatment methodology.
- B. incident response methodology.
- C. incident detection methodology.
- D. risk assessment methodology.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cloud Octagon Model was developed to support organizations' risk assessment methodology. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with a cloud computing environment. The Cloud Octagon Model provides a logical approach to holistically deal with security aspects involved in moving to the cloud by introducing eight dimensions that need to be considered: procurement, IT governance, architecture, development and engineering, service providers, risk processes, data classification, and country. The model aims to reduce risks, improve effectiveness, manageability, and security of cloud solutions12.
References:
* Cloud Octagon Model | CSA
* Cloud Security Alliance Releases Cloud Octagon Model
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following cloud service provider activities MUST obtain a client's approval?
- A. Deleting guest accounts
- B. Deleting test accounts
- C. Deleting subscription owner accounts
- D. Destroying test data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Deleting subscription owner accounts is an activity that MUST obtain a client's approval in the context of cloud service provider activities. Subscription owner accounts are critical as they hold the ownership and control over the resources and services within a cloud subscription. Deleting these accounts can have significant implications, including loss of access, control, and potential data loss. Therefore, it is essential for a cloud service provider to seek explicit approval from the client before proceeding with such an action to ensure transparency, maintain trust, and avoid any unintended consequences.
References:
Microsoft Trust Center, Cloud Services Due Diligence Checklist1.
Google Cloud, What is a Cloud Service Provider?2.
Partner Center, CSP agreements, price lists, and offers3.
Microsoft Azure, How to choose a cloud service provider4.
FCA, FG16/5 Guidance for firms outsourcing to the 'cloud' and other third-party IT services
NEW QUESTION # 43
Account design in the cloud should be driven by:
- A. business continuity policies.
- B. management structure.
- C. security requirements.
- D. organizational structure.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following is the BEST tool to perform cloud security control audits?
- A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2
- B. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- C. ISO 27001
- D. Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is the best tool to perform cloud security control audits, as it is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that is aligned to the CSA best practices and is considered the de-facto standard for cloud security and privacy1. The CCM provides a set of 197 control objectives that are structured in 17 domains covering all key aspects of cloud technology, such as identity and access management, data security, encryption and key management, business continuity and disaster recovery, audit assurance and compliance, and risk management1. The CCM also maps the controls to various industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and control frameworks, such as ISO 27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others1. The CCM can be used as a tool for the systematic assessment of a cloud implementation, and provides guidance on which security controls should be implemented by which actor within the cloud supply chain1. The CCM also includes the Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ), which provides a set of "yes or no" questions based on the security controls in the CCM that can be used to assess a cloud service provider2.
The other options are not the best tools to perform cloud security control audits, as they are either not specific to cloud computing or not comprehensive enough. GDPR is a regulation that aims to protect the personal data and privacy of individuals in the European Union and the European Economic Area3, but it does not provide a framework for cloud security controls. FIPS 140-2 is a standard that specifies the security requirements for cryptographic modules used by federal agencies in the United States, but it does not cover other aspects of cloud security. ISO 27001 is a standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization, but it does not provide specific guidance for cloud services. Reference:
Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA
Cloud Controls Matrix and CAIQ v4 | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance
General Data Protection Regulation - Wikipedia
[FIPS 140-2 - Wikipedia]
[ISO/IEC 27001:2013]
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is a good candidate for continuous auditing?
- A. Documentation quality
- B. Governance
- C. Cryptography and authentication
- D. Procedures
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Cryptography and authentication are good candidates for continuous auditing, as they are critical aspects of cloud security that require constant monitoring and verification. Cryptography and authentication refer to the methods and techniques that ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and communications in the cloud environment. Cryptography involves the use of encryption algorithms and keys to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. Authentication involves the use of credentials and tokens to verify the identity and access rights of users or devices. Continuous auditing can help to assess the effectiveness and compliance of cryptography and authentication controls, such as data encryption, key management, password policies, multifactor authentication, single sign-on, etc. Continuous auditing can also help to detect and alert any anomalies or issues that may compromise or affect cryptography and authentication, such as data breaches, key leakage, password cracking, unauthorized access, etc123.
Procedures (A) are not good candidates for continuous auditing, as they are not specific or measurable aspects of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Procedures refer to the steps or actions that are performed to achieve a certain objective or result in a specific domain or context. Procedures may vary depending on the type, nature, or complexity of the task or process involved. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Procedures may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess their effectiveness or compliance123.
Governance (B) is not a good candidate for continuous auditing, as it is not a specific or measurable aspect of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Governance refers to the framework or system that defines the roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, procedures, and practices for managing and overseeing an organization or a domain. Governance may involve multiple stakeholders, such as management, board of directors, regulators, auditors, customers, etc., who have different interests, expectations, or perspectives.
Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Governance may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess its effectiveness or compliance123.
Documentation quality (D) is not a good candidate for continuous auditing, as it is not a specific or measurable aspect of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Documentation quality refers to the degree to which the documents that describe or support an organization or a domain are accurate, complete, consistent, relevant, and understandable. Documentation quality may depend on various factors, such as the purpose, audience, format, style, language, structure, content, etc., of the documents involved. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Documentation quality may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess its effectiveness or compliance123. References := Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Providers - Cloud Standards ...
Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Customers - Cloud Standards ...
Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam
NEW QUESTION # 46
An auditor identifies that a cloud service provider received multiple customer inquiries and requests for proposal (RFPs) during the last month.
Which of the following should be the BEST recommendation to reduce the provider's burden?
- A. The provider can schedule a call with each customer.
- B. The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry
- C. The provider can answer each customer individually.
- D. The provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CSA STAR registry is a publicly accessible registry that documents the security and privacy controls provided by popular cloud computing offerings1 The registry is designed for users of cloud services to assess their cloud providers' security and compliance posture, including the regulations, standards, and frameworks they adhere to1 The registry also promotes industry transparency and reduces complexity and costs for both providers and customers2 The provider can direct all customer inquiries to the information in the CSA STAR registry, as this would be the best recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. By publishing to the registry, the provider can show current and potential customers their security and compliance posture, without having to fill out multiple customer questionnaires or requests for proposal (RFPs)2 The provider can also leverage the different levels of assurance available in the registry, such as self-assessment, third-party audit, or certification, to demonstrate their security maturity and trustworthiness1 The provider can also benefit from the CSA Trusted Cloud Providers program, which recognizes providers that have fulfilled additional training and volunteer requirements with CSA, demonstrating their commitment to cloud security competency and industry best practices3 The other options are not correct because:
* Option A is not correct because the provider can schedule a call with each customer is not a good recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. Scheduling a call with each customer would be time-consuming, inefficient, and impractical, especially if the provider receives multiple inquiries and RFPs every month. Scheduling a call would also not guarantee that the customer would be satisfied with the provider's security and compliance posture, as they may still request additional information or evidence. Scheduling a call would also not help the provider differentiate themselves from other providers in the market, as they may not be able to showcase their security maturity and trustworthiness effectively.
* Option B is not correct because the provider can share all security reports with customers to streamline the process is not a good recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. Sharing all security reports with customers may not be feasible, as some reports may contain sensitive or confidential information that should not be disclosed to external parties. Sharing all security reports may also not be desirable, as some reports may be outdated, incomplete, or inconsistent, which could undermine the provider's credibility and reputation. Sharing all security reports may also not be effective, as some customers may not have the expertise or resources to review and understand them properly.
* Option C is not correct because the provider can answer each customer individually is not a good recommendation to reduce the provider's burden. Answering each customer individually would be tedious, repetitive, and costly, as the provider would have to provide similar or identical information to different customers over and over again. Answering each customer individually would also not ensure that the provider's security and compliance posture is consistent and accurate, as they may make mistakes or omissions in their responses. Answering each customer individually would also not help the provider stand out from other providers in the market, as they may not be able to highlight their security achievements and certifications.
References: 1: STAR | CSA 2: Why your cloud services need the CSA STAR Registry listing 3: STAR Registry | CSA
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern of an IS auditor during a review of an external IT service level agreement (SLA) for computer operations?
- A. Lack of software escrow provisions
- B. Changes in services are not tracked
- C. Vendor has exclusive control of IT resources
- D. No employee succession plan
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 48
Controls mapping found in the Scope Applicability column of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) may help organizations to realize cost savings:
- A. by avoiding fines for breaching those regulations that impose a controls mapping in order to prove compliance
- B. by avoiding the need to hire a cloud security specialist to perform the periodic risk assessment exercise.
- C. by avoiding duplication of efforts in the compliance evaluation and for the eventual control design and implementation.
- D. by implementing layered security, thus reducing the likelihood of data breaches and the associated costs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Controls mapping found in the Scope Applicability column of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) may help organizations to realize cost savings by avoiding duplication of efforts in the compliance evaluation and for the eventual control design and implementation. The Scope Applicability column is a feature of the CCM that indicates which cloud model type (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) or cloud environment (public, hybrid, private) a control applies to. This feature can help organizations to identify and select the most relevant and appropriate controls for their specific cloud scenario, as well as to map them to multiple industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks. By doing so, organizations can reduce the time, resources, and costs involved in achieving and maintaining compliance with various cloud security requirements123.
The other options are not directly related to the question. Option B, by implementing layered security, thus reducing the likelihood of data breaches and the associated costs, is not a valid reason because layered security is a general principle of defense in depth, not a specific feature of the CCM or the Scope Applicability column.
Option C, by avoiding the need to hire a cloud security specialist to perform the periodic risk assessment exercise, is not a valid reason because using the CCM or the Scope Applicability column does not eliminate the need for a cloud security specialist or a periodic risk assessment exercise, which are essential for ensuring the effectiveness and adequacy of the cloud security controls. Option D, by avoiding fines for breaching those regulations that impose a controls mapping in order to prove compliance, is not a valid reason because controls mapping is not a mandatory requirement for proving compliance, but a voluntary tool for facilitating compliance. References := What is CAIQ? | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance1 Understanding the Cloud Control Matrix | CloudBolt Software2 Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA
NEW QUESTION # 49
In cloud computing, which KEY subject area relies on measurement results and metrics?
- A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) development environment
- B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) storage and network
- C. Software as a Service (SaaS) application services
- D. Service level agreements (SLAs)
Answer: D
Explanation:
SLAs in cloud computing define performance metrics and uptime commitments, making them crucial for monitoring and measuring service delivery against predefined benchmarks. Metrics from SLAs help in tracking service performance, compliance with contractual obligations, and cloud service provider accountability. ISACA's CCAK outlines the importance of SLAs for cloud governance and risk management, as they provide a measurable baseline that informs cloud audit activities (referenced in CCM under Governance, Risk, and Compliance - GOV-05).
NEW QUESTION # 50
When developing a cloud compliance program, what is the PRIMARY reason for a cloud customer
- A. To determine the total cost of the cloud services to be deployed
- B. To confirm which vendor will be selected based on compliance with security requirements
- C. To confirm whether the compensating controls implemented are sufficient for the cloud services
- D. To determine how those services will fit within its policies and procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
When developing a cloud compliance program, the primary reason for a cloud customer to determine how those services will fit within its policies and procedures is to ensure that the cloud services are aligned with the customer's business objectives, risk appetite, and compliance obligations. Cloud services may have different characteristics, features, and capabilities than traditional on-premises services, and may require different or additional controls to meet the customer's security and compliance requirements. Therefore, the customer needs to assess how the cloud services will fit within its existing policies and procedures, such as data classification, data protection, access management, incident response, audit, and reporting. The customer also needs to identify any gaps or conflicts between the cloud services and its policies and procedures, and implement appropriate measures to address them. By doing so, the customer can ensure that the cloud services are used in a secure, compliant, and effective manner12.
References:
* ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 19-20.
* Cloud Compliance Frameworks: What You Need to Know
NEW QUESTION # 51
What do cloud service providers offer to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform?
- A. Application programming interfaces (APIs)
- B. Reward programs
- C. Cloud console
- D. Access to the cloud infrastructure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Cloud service providers offer application programming interfaces (APIs) to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform. APIs are sets of rules and protocols that define how different software components or applications can communicate and interact with each other. APIs enable clients to access the cloud services and data, integrate them with their own applications or systems, and customize or enhance their functionality and performance. APIs also allow clients to leverage the cloud platform's features and capabilities, such as scalability, reliability, security, and analytics.12 Some examples of cloud service providers that offer APIs are Google Cloud, Microsoft Azure, Amazon Web Services (AWS), IBM Cloud, and Oracle Cloud. These providers offer various types of APIs for different purposes and domains, such as compute, storage, database, networking, artificial intelligence, machine learning, big data, internet of things, and blockchain. These APIs help clients to build, deploy, manage, and optimize their cloud applications and solutions.34567 References := What is an API? - Definition from WhatIs.com1; What is a Cloud API? - Definition from Techopedia2; Cloud APIs | Google Cloud3; Cloud Services - Deploy Cloud Apps & APIs | Microsoft Azure4; AWS Application Programming Interface (API) | AWS5; IBM Cloud API Docs6; Oracle Cloud Infrastructure API Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 52
Organizations maintain mappings between the different control frameworks they adopt to:
- A. avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance,
- B. start a compliance assessment using the latest assessment.
- C. help identify controls with common assessment status.
- D. help identify controls with different assessment status.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Organizations maintain mappings between the different control frameworks they adopt to avoid duplication of work when assessing compliance. This is because different control frameworks may have overlapping or equivalent controls that address the same objectives or risks. By mapping these controls, organizations can streamline their compliance assessment process and reduce the cost and effort involved. Mappings also help organizations to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in their control coverage and address them accordingly. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain COM-03: Control Frameworks, which states that "The organization should identify and adopt applicable control frameworks, standards, and best practices to support the cloud compliance program."1 References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 54
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is an example of integrity technical impact?
- A. An administrator inadvertently click on Phish bait exposing his company to a ransomware attack.
- B. A DDoS attack renders the customer's cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.
- C. The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.
- D. A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alerts the discount percentage in the product database.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following is MOST useful for an auditor to review when seeking visibility into the cloud supply chain for a newly acquired Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?
- A. SaaS vendor white papers
- B. Payments made by the service owner
- C. SaaS provider contract
- D. Cloud compliance obligations register
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The most useful document for an auditor to review when seeking visibility into the cloud supply chain for a newly acquired Software as a Service (SaaS) solution is the SaaS provider contract. The contract is the legal agreement that defines the terms and conditions of the cloud service, including the roles, responsibilities, and obligations of the parties involved1. The contract should also specify the service level agreements (SLAs), security and privacy requirements, data ownership and governance, incident response and reporting, audit rights and access, and subcontracting or outsourcing arrangements of the SaaS provider2. By reviewing the contract, the auditor can gain insight into the cloud supply chain and assess the risks, controls, and compliance of the SaaS solution.
The other options are not as useful as the SaaS provider contract. Payments made by the service owner are the financial transactions that reflect the fees or charges incurred by using the SaaS solution. They may indicate the usage or consumption of the cloud service, but they do not provide much information about the cloud supply chain or its security and compliance aspects3. SaaS vendor white papers are the marketing or educational materials that describe the features, benefits, or best practices of the SaaS solution. They may provide some general or technical information about the cloud service, but they are not legally binding or verifiable4. Cloud compliance obligations register is a tool that helps customers identify and track their compliance requirements and obligations for using cloud services. It may help customers understand their own responsibilities and risks in relation to the cloud service, but it does not necessarily reflect the compliance status or performance of the SaaS provider5.
References:
Cloud Services Due Diligence Checklist | Trust Center1, section on How to use the checklist Cloud Computing Security Considerations | Cyber.gov.au2, section on Contractual arrangements Cloud Computing Pricing Models: A Comparison - DZone Cloud3, section on Pricing Models What is a White Paper? Definition from WhatIs.com4, section on White Paper Cloud Compliance Obligations Register | Cyber.gov.au5, section on Cloud Compliance Obligations Register
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following should be an assurance requirement when an organization is migrating to a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider?
- A. Amount of server storage
- B. Location of data
- C. Type of network technology
- D. Access controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Access controls are an assurance requirement when an organization is migrating to a SaaS provider because they ensure that only authorized users can access the cloud services and data. Access controls also help to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the cloud resources. Access controls are part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain IAM-01: Identity and Access Management Policy and Procedures, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to manage user identities and access to cloud services and data."1 Reference := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 751
NEW QUESTION # 56
With regard to the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), the Architectural Relevance is a feature that enables the filtering of security controls by:
- A. relevant architecture frameworks such as the NIST Enterprise Architecture Model, the Federal Enterprise Architecture Framework (FEAF), The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF). and the Zachman Framework for Enterprise Architecture.
- B. relevant architectural paradigms such as Client-Server, Mainframe, Peer-to-Peer, and SmartClient-Backend.
- C. relevant architectural components such as Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application, and Data.
- D. relevant delivery models such as Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (laaS).
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Architectural Relevance feature within the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) allows for the filtering of security controls based on relevant delivery models like SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS. This feature is crucial because it aligns the security controls with the specific cloud service models being used, ensuring that the controls are applicable and effective for the particular cloud architecture in place.
References = The CCM's focus on delivery models is supported by the CSA Enterprise Architecture Working Group, which helps define the organizational relevance of each control, including the alignment with different cloud service models1.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Controls mapping found in the Scope Applicability column of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) may help organizations to realize cost savings:
- A. by avoiding fines for breaching those regulations that impose a controls mapping in order to prove compliance
- B. by avoiding the need to hire a cloud security specialist to perform the periodic risk assessment exercise.
- C. by avoiding duplication of efforts in the compliance evaluation and for the eventual control design and implementation.
- D. by implementing layered security, thus reducing the likelihood of data breaches and the associated costs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Controls mapping found in the Scope Applicability column of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) may help organizations to realize cost savings by avoiding duplication of efforts in the compliance evaluation and for the eventual control design and implementation. The Scope Applicability column is a feature of the CCM that indicates which cloud model type (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) or cloud environment (public, hybrid, private) a control applies to. This feature can help organizations to identify and select the most relevant and appropriate controls for their specific cloud scenario, as well as to map them to multiple industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks. By doing so, organizations can reduce the time, resources, and costs involved in achieving and maintaining compliance with various cloud security requirements123.
The other options are not directly related to the question. Option B, by implementing layered security, thus reducing the likelihood of data breaches and the associated costs, is not a valid reason because layered security is a general principle of defense in depth, not a specific feature of the CCM or the Scope Applicability column. Option C, by avoiding the need to hire a cloud security specialist to perform the periodic risk assessment exercise, is not a valid reason because using the CCM or the Scope Applicability column does not eliminate the need for a cloud security specialist or a periodic risk assessment exercise, which are essential for ensuring the effectiveness and adequacy of the cloud security controls. Option D, by avoiding fines for breaching those regulations that impose a controls mapping in order to prove compliance, is not a valid reason because controls mapping is not a mandatory requirement for proving compliance, but a voluntary tool for facilitating compliance. Reference := What is CAIQ? | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance1 Understanding the Cloud Control Matrix | CloudBolt Software2 Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA
NEW QUESTION # 58
What do cloud service providers offer to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform?
- A. Application programming interfaces (APIs)
- B. Reward programs
- C. Cloud console
- D. Access to the cloud infrastructure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud service providers offer application programming interfaces (APIs) to encourage clients to extend the cloud platform. APIs are sets of rules and protocols that define how different software components or applications can communicate and interact with each other. APIs enable clients to access the cloud services and data, integrate them with their own applications or systems, and customize or enhance their functionality and performance. APIs also allow clients to leverage the cloud platform's features and capabilities, such as scalability, reliability, security, and analytics.12 Some examples of cloud service providers that offer APIs are Google Cloud, Microsoft Azure, Amazon Web Services (AWS), IBM Cloud, and Oracle Cloud. These providers offer various types of APIs for different purposes and domains, such as compute, storage, database, networking, artificial intelligence, machine learning, big data, internet of things, and blockchain. These APIs help clients to build, deploy, manage, and optimize their cloud applications and solutions.34567 References := What is an API? - Definition from WhatIs.com1; What is a Cloud API? - Definition from Techopedia2; Cloud APIs | Google Cloud3; Cloud Services - Deploy Cloud Apps & APIs | Microsoft Azure4; AWS Application Programming Interface (API) | AWS5; IBM Cloud API Docs6; Oracle Cloud Infrastructure API Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 59
"Network environments and virtual instances shall be designed and configured to restrict and monitor traffic between trusted and untrusted connections. These configurations shall be reviewed at least annually, and supported by a documented justification for use for all allowed services, protocols, ports, and by compensating controls." Which of the following types of controls BEST matches this control description?
- A. Network vulnerability management
- B. Virtual instance and OS hardening
- C. Network security
- D. Change detection
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Network security is the type of control that best matches the control description given in the question. Network security involves designing and configuring network environments and virtual instances to restrict and monitor traffic between trusted and untrusted connections, such as firewalls, routers, switches, VPNs, and network segmentation. Network security also requires periodic reviews and documentation of the network configurations and the justification for the allowed services, protocols, ports, and compensating controls.
The other options are not directly related to the question. Option A, virtual instance and OS hardening, refers to the process of applying security configurations and patches to virtual instances and operating systems to reduce their attack surface and vulnerabilities. Option C, network vulnerability management, refers to the process of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and remediating network vulnerabilities using tools such as scanners, analyzers, and testers. Option D, change detection, refers to the process of monitoring and detecting changes in the system or network environment that could affect the security posture or performance of the system or network.
Reference:
IVS-01: Network Security - CSF Tools - Identity Digital1
Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Cloud Security Controls Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA2
NEW QUESTION # 60
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