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What are PCSA credentials?
The Professional level normally requires earning six exams to achieve, while associate requires six exams to achieve. The Associate exam is an objective test that candidates can take online or on skype, while professional exam candidates only have access to one option. The PCSA consists of a single certification covering information security management principles and concepts. It provides a foundation for the core skills required of entry-level information security professionals and the fundamental knowledge for career growth into more advanced positions, or to prepare for certifications at a higher level. Passing this exam does not qualify a candidate for any CISSP certification nor does it make an individual eligible for any other ISC credential.
NEW QUESTION 729
Which of the following is NOT a form of data erasure?
- A. Destruction
- B. Remanence
- C. Purging
- D. Clearing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clearing refers to the overwriting of data
media intended to be reused in same organization. Purging refers to
degaussing or overwriting media intended to be removed from the
organization. Destruction refers to completely destroying the media.
NEW QUESTION 730
You are a security consultant who is required to perform penetration testing on a client's network. During penetration testing, you are required to use a compromised system to attack other systems on the network to avoid network restrictions like firewalls. Which method would you use in this scenario:
- A. White Box Method.
- B. Pivoting method
- C. Black box Method
- D. Grey Box Method
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pivoting refers to method used by penetration testers that uses compromised system to attack other systems on the same network to avoid restrictions such as firewall configurations, which may prohibit direct access to all machines. For example, an attacker compromises a web server on a corporate network, the attacker can then use the compromised web server to attack other systems on the network. These types of attacks are often called multi-layered attacks. Pivoting is also known as island hopping.
Pivoting can further be distinguished into proxy pivoting and VPN pivoting:
Proxy pivoting generally describes the practice channeling traffic through a compromised target using a proxy payload on the machine and launching attacks from this computer.[1]
This type of pivoting is restricted to certain TCP and UDP ports that are supported by the proxy.
VPN pivoting enables the attacker to create an encrypted layer 2 tunnel into the compromised machine to route any network traffic through that target machine, for example to run a vulnerability scan on the internal network through the compromised machine, effectively giving the attacker full network access as if they were behind the firewall.
Typically, the proxy or VPN applications enabling pivoting are executed on the target computer as the payload (software) of an exploit.
The following answers are incorrect:
Black Box Method
Black-box testing is a method of software testing that tests the functionality of an application as opposed to its internal structures or workings (see white-box testing).
Specific knowledge of the application's code/internal structure and programming knowledge in general is not required. The tester is only aware of what the software is supposed to do, but not how i.e. when he enters a certain input, he gets a certain output; without being aware of how the output was produced in the first place. Test cases are built around specifications and requirements, i.e., what the application is supposed to do. It uses external descriptions of the software, including specifications, requirements, and designs to derive test cases. These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional. The test designer selects valid and invalid inputs and determines the correct output. There is no knowledge of the test object's internal structure.
For Penetration testing it means that you have no knowledge of the target. You may only get an IP address or a Domain Name and from that very limited amount of knowledge you must attempt to find all that you can.
White Box Method
In penetration testing, white-box testing refers to a methodology where a white hat hacker has full knowledge of the system being attacked. The goal of a white-box penetration test is to simulate a malicious insider who has some knowledge and possibly basic credentials to the target system.
Grey Box Method
Gray-box testing is a combination of white-box testing and black-box testing. Aim of this testing is to search for the defects if any due to improper structure or improper usage of applications.
In the context of the CEH this also means an internal test of company networks.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exploit_%28computer_security%29#Pivoting
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black-box_testing
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 4656-4657). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.
NEW QUESTION 731
What protocol is often used between gateway hosts on the Internet?
- A. Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
- B. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
- C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
- D. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 732
Which of the following are computer investigation issues? S
- A. An expert may be required to assist.
- B. The information is intangible.
- C. Evidence is easy to obtain.
- D. The time frame for investigation is compressed.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
In many instances, evidence is difficult to obtain in computer crime investigations.
NEW QUESTION 733
Which of the following forms of authentication would most likely apply a digital signature algorithm to every bit of data that is sent from the claimant to the verifier?
- A. Robust authentication
- B. Dynamic authentication
- C. Encrypted authentication
- D. Continuous authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
See also www.rxn.com/services/faq/internet/ISPTG-5.html
Continuous Authentication This type of authentication provides protection against impostors who can see, alter, and insert information passed between the claimant and verifier even after the claimant/verifier authentication is complete. These are typically referred to as active attacks, since they assume that the imposter can actively influence the connection between claimant and verifier. One way to provide this form of authentication is to apply a digital signature algorithm to every bit of data that is sent from the claimant to the verifier.
NEW QUESTION 734
Which of the following Orange Book ratings represents the highest level of trust?
- A. B2
- B. F6
- C. C2
- D. B1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The U.S. Department of Defense developed the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC), which was used to evaluate operating systems, applications, and different products. These evaluation criteria are published in a book known as the Orange Book.
TCSEC provides a classification system that is divided into hierarchical divisions of assurance levels:
A. Verified protection
B. Mandatory protection
C. Discretionary protection
D. Minimal security
Classification A represents the highest level of assurance, and D represents the lowest level of assurance.
Each division can have one or more numbered classes with a corresponding set of requirements that must be met for a system to achieve that particular rating. The classes with higher numbers offer a greater degree of trust and assurance. So B2 would offer more assurance than B1, and C2 would offer more assurance than C1.
Incorrect Answers:
A: B1 has a lower level of trust than B2.
C: F6 is not a valid rating.
D: Division C has a lower level of trust than division B.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, pp. 392-393
NEW QUESTION 735
A security engineer is designing a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application for a third-party vendor. In which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) will it be MOST beneficial to conduct a data sensitivity assessment?
- A. Enumeration
- B. Development / Acquisition
- C. Operation / Maintenance
- D. Initiation
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 736
Which minimum TCSEC security class category specifies trusted
distribution controls?
- A. B2
- B. C2
- C. A1
- D. B3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Trusted distribution is defined by the Orange Book as a requirement
of A1 TCB assurancE. Trusted distribution includes procedures to
ensure that all of the TCB configuration items, such as the TCB software, firmware, hardware, and updates, distributed to a customer site arrive exactly as intended by the vendor without any alterations.
Any alteration to the TCB at any time during the system life cycle
could result in a violation of the system security policy. Assurance
that the system security policy is correctly implemented and operational throughout the system life cycle is provided by different
TCSEC requirements. At TCSEC class Al, trusted distribution, in conjunction with configuration management, provides assurance that the TCB software, firmware, and hardware, both original and
updates, are received by a customer site exactly as specified by the
vendors master copy. Trusted distribution also ensures that TCB
copies sent from other than legitimate parties are detecteD. Source:
NCSC-TG-008 A Guide to Understanding Trusted Distribution in
Trusted Systems [Lavender Book].
NEW QUESTION 737
A relational database can provide security through view relations. Views
enforce what information security principle?
- A. Least privilege
- B. Separation of duties
- C. Aggregation
- D. Inference
Answer: A
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege states that a subject is permitted to have access to the minimum amount of information required to perform an authorized task. When related to government security clearances, it is referred to as need-to-know.
* aggregation, is defined as assembling or compiling units of information at one sensitivity level and having the resultant totality of data being of a higher sensitivity level than the individual components. *Separation of duties requires that two or more subjects are necessary to authorize an activity or task. *inference, refers to the ability of a subject to deduce information that is not authorized to be accessed by that subject from information that is authorized to that subject.
NEW QUESTION 738
RAID levels 3 and 5 run:
- A. slower on hardware.
- B. faster on hardware.
- C. at the same speed on software and hardware.
- D. faster on software.
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAID levels 3 and 5 run faster on hardware.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 67.
NEW QUESTION 739
A packet filtering firewall looks at the data packet to get information about the source and destination addresses of an incoming packet, the session's communications protocol (TCP, UDP or ICMP), and the source destination application port for the?
- A. Delayed service
- B. Desired service
- C. Dedicated service
- D. Distributed service.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is true, the packets filters show the desired service port (Remember that they are layer 3 devices), this is because you can have many different referenced port number in the destination port field of the different packets. You have to look for the well-known port numbers of the service desired. For example, look in port 80 for HTTP and port 21 for FTP. This is the correct terminology, see the features of Packet Filters in your CISSP documentation.
NEW QUESTION 740
Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is not defined as a preparation that facilitates:
- A. the reduction of the impact of a disaster
- B. the continuation of critical business functions
- C. the rapid recovery of mission-critical business operations
- D. the monitoring of threat activity for adjustment of technical controls
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 741
Devices that supply power when the commercial utility power system fails are called which of the following?
- A. power dividers
- B. power conditioners
- C. power filters
- D. uninterruptible power supplies
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is an electrical apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source, typically mains power, fails. A UPS differs from an auxiliary or emergency power system or standby generator in that it will provide near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions, by supplying energy stored in batteries, supercapacitors, or flywheels. The on-battery runtime of most uninterruptible power sources is relatively short (often only a few minutes) but sufficient to start a standby power source or properly shut down the protected equipment.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A power conditioner is a device intended to improve the quality of the power that is delivered to electrical equipment. It does not supply power when the commercial utility power system fails. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
C: A power filter is similar to a power conditioner in that it is intended to improve the quality of the power that is delivered to electrical equipment. It does not supply power when the commercial utility power system fails. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
D: Power dividers are used in radio technology. They do not supply power when the commercial utility power system fails. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uninterruptible_power_supply
NEW QUESTION 742
Which of the following would be best suited to oversee the development of an information security policy?
- A. Security administrators
- B. System Administrators
- C. End User
- D. Security Officers
Answer: D
Explanation:
The security officer would be the best person to oversea the development of such policies. Security officers and their teams have typically been charged with the responsibility of creating the security policies. The policies must be written and communicated appropriately to ensure that they can be understood by the end users. Policies that are poorly written, or written at too high of an education level (common industry practice is to focus the content for general users at the sixth- to eighth-grade reading level), will not be understood.
Implementing security policies and the items that support them shows due care by the company and its management staff. Informing employees of what is expected of them and the consequences of noncompliance can come down to a liability issue. While security officers may be responsible for the development of the security policies, the effort should be collaborative to ensure that the business issues are addressed. The security officers will get better corporate support by including other areas in policy development. This helps build buy-in by these areas as they take on a greater ownership of the final product. Consider including areas such as HR, legal, compliance, various IT areas and specific business area representatives who represent critical business units.
When policies are developed solely within the IT department and then distributed without business input, they are likely to miss important business considerations. Once policy documents have been created, the basis for ensuring compliance is established. Depending on the organization, additional documentation may be necessary to support policy. This support may come in the form of additional controls described in standards, baselines, or procedures to help personnel with compliance. An important step after documentation is to make the most current version of the
documents readily accessible to those who are expected to follow them. Many organizations place
the documents on their intranets or in shared file folders to facilitate their accessibility. Such
placement of these documents plus checklists, forms, and sample documents can make
awareness more effective.
For your exam you should know the information below:
End User - The end user is responsible for protecting information assets on a daily basis through
adherence to the security policies that have been communicated.
Executive Management/Senior Management - Executive management maintains the overall
responsibility for protection of the information assets. The business operations are dependent
upon information being available, accurate, and protected from individuals without a need to know.
Security Officer - The security officer directs, coordinates, plans, and organizes information
security activities throughout the organization. The security officer works with many different
individuals, such as executive management, management of the business units, technical staff,
business partners, auditors, and third parties such as vendors. The security officer and his or her
team are responsible for the design, implementation, management, and review of the
organization's security policies, standards, procedures, baselines, and guidelines.
Information Systems Security Professional- Drafting of security policies, standards and supporting
guidelines, procedures, and baselines is coordinated through these individuals. Guidance is
provided for technical security issues, and emerging threats are considered for the adoption of
new policies. Activities such as interpretation of government regulations and industry trends and
analysis of vendor solutions to include in the security architecture that advances the security of the
organization are performed in this role.
Data/Information/Business/System Owners - A business executive or manager is typically
responsible for an information asset. These are the individuals that assign the appropriate
classification to information assets. They ensure that the business information is protected with
appropriate controls. Periodically, the information asset owners need to review the classification
and access rights associated with information assets. The owners, or their delegates, may be
required to approve access to the information. Owners also need to determine the criticality,
sensitivity, retention, backups, and safeguards for the information. Owners or their delegates are
responsible for understanding the risks that exist with regards to the information that they control.
Data/Information Custodian/Steward - A data custodian is an individual or function that takes care
of the information on behalf of the owner. These individuals ensure that the information is available
to the end users and is backed up to enable recovery in the event of data loss or corruption.
Information may be stored in files, databases, or systems whose technical infrastructure must be
managed, by systems administrators. This group administers access rights to the information
assets.
Information Systems Auditor- IT auditors determine whether users, owners, custodians, systems, and networks are in compliance with the security policies, procedures, standards, baselines, designs, architectures, management direction, and other requirements placed on systems. The auditors provide independent assurance to the management on the appropriateness of the security controls. The auditor examines the information systems and determines whether they are designed, configured, implemented, operated, and managed in a way ensuring that the organizational objectives are being achieved. The auditors provide top company management with an independent view of the controls and their effectiveness.
Business Continuity Planner - Business continuity planners develop contingency plans to prepare for any occurrence that could have the ability to impact the company's objectives negatively. Threats may include earthquakes, tornadoes, hurricanes, blackouts, changes in the economic/political climate, terrorist activities, fire, or other major actions potentially causing significant harm. The business continuity planner ensures that business processes can continue through the disaster and coordinates those activities with the business areas and information technology personnel responsible for disaster recovery.
Information Systems/ Technology Professionals- These personnel are responsible for designing security controls into information systems, testing the controls, and implementing the systems in production environments through agreed upon operating policies and procedures. The information systems professionals work with the business owners and the security professionals to ensure that the designed solution provides security controls commensurate with the acceptable criticality, sensitivity, and availability requirements of the application.
Security Administrator - A security administrator manages the user access request process and ensures that privileges are provided to those individuals who have been authorized for access by application/system/data owners. This individual has elevated privileges and creates and deletes accounts and access permissions. The security administrator also terminates access privileges when individuals leave their jobs or transfer between company divisions. The security administrator maintains records of access request approvals and produces reports of access rights for the auditor during testing in an access controls audit to demonstrate compliance with the policies.
Network/Systems Administrator - A systems administrator (sysadmin/netadmin) configures network and server hardware and the operating systems to ensure that the information can be available and accessible. The administrator maintains the computing infrastructure using tools and utilities such as patch management and software distribution mechanisms to install updates and test patches on organization computers. The administrator tests and implements system upgrades to ensure the continued reliability of the servers and network devices. The administrator provides vulnerability management through either commercial off the shelf (COTS) and/or non-COTS solutions to test the computing environment and mitigate vulnerabilities appropriately.
Physical Security - The individuals assigned to the physical security role establish relationships with external law enforcement, such as the local police agencies, state police, or the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to assist in investigations. Physical security personnel manage the installation, maintenance, and ongoing operation of the closed circuit television (CCTV) surveillance systems, burglar alarm systems, and card reader access control systems. Guards are placed where necessary as a deterrent to unauthorized access and to provide safety for the company employees. Physical security personnel interface with systems security, human resources, facilities, and legal and business areas to ensure that the practices are integrated.
Security Analyst - The security analyst role works at a higher, more strategic level than the previously described roles and helps develop policies, standards, and guidelines, as well as set various baselines. Whereas the previous roles are "in the weeds" and focus on pieces and parts of the security program, a security analyst helps define the security program elements and follows through to ensure the elements are being carried out and practiced properly. This person works more at a design level than at an implementation level.
Administrative Assistants/Secretaries - This role can be very important to information security; in many companies of smaller size, this may be the individual who greets visitors, signs packages in and out, recognizes individuals who desire to enter the offices, and serves as the phone screener for executives. These individuals may be subject to social engineering attacks, whereby the potential intruder attempts to solicit confidential information that may be used for a subsequent attack. Social engineers prey on the goodwill of the helpful individual to gain entry. A properly trained assistant will minimize the risk of divulging useful company information or of providing unauthorized entry.
Help Desk Administrator - As the name implies, the help desk is there to field questions from users that report system problems. Problems may include poor response time, potential virus infections, unauthorized access, inability to access system resources, or questions on the use of a program. The help desk is also often where the first indications of security issues and incidents will be seen. A help desk individual would contact the computer security incident response team (CIRT) when a situation meets the criteria developed by the team. The help desk resets passwords, resynchronizes/reinitializes tokens and smart cards, and resolves other problems with access control.
Supervisor - The supervisor role, also called user manager, is ultimately responsible for all user activity and any assets created and owned by these users. For example, suppose Kathy is the supervisor of ten employees. Her responsibilities would include ensuring that these employees understand their responsibilities with respect to security; making sure the employees' account information is up-to-date; and informing the security administrator when an employee is fired,
suspended, or transferred. Any change that pertains to an employee's role within the company
usually affects what access rights they should and should not have, so the user manager must
inform the security administrator of these changes immediately.
Change Control Analyst Since the only thing that is constant is change, someone must make sure
changes happen securely. The change control analyst is responsible for approving or rejecting
requests to make changes to the network, systems, or software. This role must make certain that
the change will not introduce any vulnerabilities, that it has been properly tested, and that it is
properly rolled out. The change control analyst needs to understand how various changes can
affect security, interoperability, performance, and productivity. Or, a company can choose to just
roll out the change and see what happens.
The following answers are incorrect:
Systems Administrator - A systems administrator (sysadmin/netadmin) configures network and
server hardware and the operating systems to ensure that the information can be available and
accessible. The administrator maintains the computing infrastructure using tools and utilities such
as patch management and software distribution mechanisms to install updates and test patches
on organization computers. The administrator tests and implements system upgrades to ensure
the continued reliability of the servers and network devices. The administrator provides
vulnerability management through either commercial off the shelf (COTS) and/or non-COTS
solutions to test the computing environment and mitigate vulnerabilities appropriately.
End User - The end user is responsible for protecting information assets on a daily basis through
adherence to the security policies that have been communicated.
Security Administrator - A security administrator manages the user access request process and
ensures that privileges are provided to those individuals who have been authorized for access by
application/system/data owners. This individual has elevated privileges and creates and deletes
accounts and access permissions. The security administrator also terminates access privileges
when individuals leave their jobs or transfer between company divisions. The security
administrator maintains records of access request approvals and produces reports of access
rights for the auditor during testing in an access controls audit to demonstrate compliance with the
policies.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 109
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 108). McGraw-Hill.
Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 743
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) has recently been deployed in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
The IDS detects a flood of malformed packets. Which of the following BEST describes what has occurred?
- A. Ping flood attack
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. Denial of Service (DoS) attack
- D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoof
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 744
Computer-generated evidence is considered:
- A. Demonstrative evidence
- B. Second hand evidence
- C. Best evidence
- D. Direct evidence
Answer: B
Explanation:
"Most of the time, computer-related documents are considered hearsay, meaning the evidence is secondhand evidence. Hearsay evidence is not normally admissible in court unless it has firsthand evidence that can be used to prove the evidence's accuracy, trustworthiness, and reliability, such as a businessperson who generated the computer logs and collected them." Pg. 630 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification
NEW QUESTION 745
There is no way to completely abolish or avoid risks, you can only manage them. A risk free environment does not exist. If you have risks that have been identified, understood and evaluated to be acceptable in order to conduct business operations. What is this this approach to risk management called?
- A. Risk Acceptance
- B. Risk Mitigation
- C. Risk Transference
- D. Risk Avoidance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk management provides a mechanism to the organization to ensure that executive management knows current risks, and informed decisions can be made to use one of the risk management principles: risk avoidance, risk transfer, risk mitigation, or risk acceptance,
Risk Acceptance is when the risk has been identified, understood and evaluated to be acceptable in order to conduct business operations. Acceptance goes hand-in-hand with mitigation but they're slightly different.
At the end of the day, there is always a particle of risk we must undertake to perform business in a complex computing world. Whether it is operating a website, hosting a VPN connection or
connections for employees to the open internet, there is risk.
Managers can either accept, avoid or transfer risk to another party. Either way, risk must be dealt
with to conduct business operations.
The following answers are incorrect:
Risk Avoidance: Avoiding risk is when we avoid it altogether to deal with the risk. Whether it is by
not hosting a website, not operating your own web proxy or any other computing task. Choosing
not to perform the process is risk avoidance. This isn't correct because accepting risk is clearly not
avoiding the risk.
Risk Transference: When we transfer risk, we pay someone else to undertake the risk on our
behalf so that we may conduct operations, benefit from the risk but don't undertake the risky
operation ourselves. Accepting the risk is different from transferring the risk to another
organization apart from your own in that you're not accepting it at all. Someone else does for you.
Risk Mitigation: Mitigating risk means you accept it AND work around the risk to benefit from it. A
good example could be a locked down web server or firewall. You benefit from the service they
provide but mitigate risks involved by technical measures. Mitigation is incorrect because it goes
beyond merely accepting the risk by mitigating the risk to make it more acceptable.
The following reference(s) was used to create this question:
Gregg, Michael; Haines, Billy (2012-02-16). CASP: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
Study Guide Authorized Courseware: Exam CAS-001 (p. 218). Wiley. Kindle Edition.
and
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition
((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 8884-8886). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 746
Which of the following is the primary security feature of a proxy server?
- A. Route blocking
- B. Virus Detection
- C. Content filtering
- D. URL blocking
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A proxy firewall is a network security system that protects network resources by filtering messages at the application layer. The application-level proxy understands the packet as a whole and can make access decisions based on the content of the packets.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Firewalls does not detect viruses.
B: A proxy server firewall does not use URL blocking.
C: A proxy server firewall does not use route blocking.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 636
NEW QUESTION 747
Which one of the following is the MOST important in designing a biometric access system if it is essential that no one other than authorized individuals are admitted?
- A. Rejection Error Rate
- B. Crossover Error Rate (CER)
- C. False Acceptance Rate (FAR)
- D. False Rejection Rate (FRR)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 748
Which of the following methods protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) by use of a full replacement of the data element?
- A. Volume encryption
- B. Column level database encryption
- C. Transparent Database Encryption (TDE)
- D. Data tokenization
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 749
......
ISC2 CISSP Exam Certification Details:
| Exam Code | CISSP |
| Exam Name | ISC2 Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) |
| Sample Questions | ISC2 CISSP Sample Questions |
| Duration | 180 mins |
How could you focus on ISC CISSP Certification Exam
Right here is the exam overview for ISC CISSP Certification Exam
ISC CISSP Certification Exam: Get our snappy guide in the event that you don't have the opportunity to peruse all the page
The CISSP certification was developed by the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium (ISC) and is widely considered one of the most difficult certifications to attain. The CISSP exam tests for knowledge of concepts such as network security, software security, cryptography, physical security, and general security principles. Candidates must pass a rigorous 8-hour long exam and demonstrate proficiency in at least 10 out of 12 knowledge areas. This article will provide you with some useful tips on how to prepare for the ISC CISSP certification exam by studying CISSP Dumps and what to expect during the day of your test.
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