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Pass ISACA ISACA Cybersecurity Audit Certificate Exam PDF Dumps | Recently Updated 77 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?
- A. The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
- B. The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
- C. The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
- D. The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues in the vendor's security controls or processes.
The other options are not as indicative of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D), or relying on the vendor's self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following is a passive activity that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization?
- A. Social engineering
- B. Using open source discovery
- C. Crafting counterfeit websites
- D. Scanning the network perimeter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A passive activity that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization is using open source discovery. This is because open source discovery is a technique that involves collecting and analyzing publicly available information about an organization, such as its website, social media, press releases, annual reports, etc. Open source discovery does not require any direct interaction or communication with the target organization or its systems or network, and therefore does not generate any traffic or alerts that could be detected by the organization's security controls. The other options are not passive activities that could be used by an attacker during reconnaissance to gather information about an organization, but rather active activities that involve direct or indirect interaction or communication with the target organization or its systems or network, such as scanning the network perimeter (B), social engineering C, or crafting counterfeit websites (D).
NEW QUESTION # 20
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with:
- A. risk quantification
- B. risk prioritization.
- C. risk elimination.
- D. risk aggregation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST advantage of using a common vulnerability scoring system is that it helps with risk prioritization. This is because a common vulnerability scoring system provides a standardized and consistent way of measuring and comparing the severity of vulnerabilities, based on their impact and exploitability. This allows organizations to prioritize the remediation of the most critical vulnerabilities and allocate resources accordingly. The other options are not as advantageous as using a common vulnerability scoring system, because they either involve aggregating (A), eliminating C, or quantifying (D) risk, which are not directly related to the scoring system.
NEW QUESTION # 21
When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?
- A. Privileged users
- B. Database administrators
- C. Terminated employees
- D. Contractors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
When reviewing user management roles, the group that presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions is privileged users. This is because privileged users are users who have elevated or special access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as administrators, superusers, root users, etc. Privileged users present the greatest risk based on their permissions, because they can perform actions or operations that can affect the security, availability, or functionality of systems or resources, such as installing or uninstalling software, modifying or deleting files, granting or revoking access rights, etc. Privileged users can also abuse or misuse their permissions for malicious or unauthorized purposes, such as stealing or leaking sensitive data, sabotaging systems or services, bypassing security controls, etc. The other options are not groups that present the greatest risk based on their permissions, but rather different types of users that may have different levels of access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as database administrators (B), terminated employees C, or contractors (D).
NEW QUESTION # 22
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Inventory and discovery
- B. Risk-based shakeout
- C. Evaluation of implementation details
- D. Hands-on testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following should an IS auditor do FIRST to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization?
- A. Review the most recent legal and regulatory audit report conducted by an independent party.
- B. Determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
- C. Determine if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements.
D Obtain a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization is to determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements. This is because mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements helps to ensure that the organization has identified and addressed all the applicable laws and regulations that affect its cybersecurity posture, such as data protection, privacy, breach notification, etc. Mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements also helps to evaluate the alignment and compliance of the organization's cybersecurity policies, procedures, controls, and practices with the legal and regulatory requirements. The other options are not the first thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization, but rather follow after determining if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements, such as reviewing the most recent legal and regulatory audit report (B), determining if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements C, or obtaining a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements (D).
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
- A. Back doors into applications
- B. Automated response
- C. Interface with firewalls
- D. Intrusion prevention
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is automated response. This is because an IDS is a system that monitors network or system activities for malicious or anomalous behavior, and alerts or reports on any detected incidents. An IDS can also perform automated response actions, such as blocking traffic, terminating sessions, or sending notifications, to contain or mitigate the incidents. The other options are not features of an IDS, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as intrusion prevention (A), interface with firewalls C, or back doors into applications (D).
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is EASIEST for a malicious attacker to detect?
- A. Use of insufficient cryptography
- B. Susceptibility to reverse engineering
- C. Insecure storage of sensitive data
- D. Ability to tamper with mobile code
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The EASIEST thing for a malicious attacker to detect is the susceptibility to reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing the code or functionality of an application to understand its structure, logic, or design. Reverse engineering can be used by attackers to discover vulnerabilities, bypass security mechanisms, or modify the application's behavior. Mobile applications are often susceptible to reverse engineering because they are distributed in binary form and can be easily decompiled or disassembled.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Lack of specificity m the principles
- B. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- C. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- D. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 27
In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used to;
- A. ensure message integrity.
- B. ensure message accuracy.
- C. prove sender authenticity.
- D. maintain confidentiality.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used to prove sender authenticity. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a message to sign it with their private key, which can only be decrypted by their public key. The recipient can verify that the message was sent by the sender and not tampered with by using the sender's public key.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Full backup
- B. Incremental backup
- C. Daily backup
- D. Differential backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is MOST important to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program?
- A. Processes are aligned with industry best practices.
- B. Processes are updated and documented annually.
- C. Processes are approved by the process owner.
- D. Processes are centralized and standardized.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing to verify when reviewing the effectiveness of an organization's identity management program is whether the processes are aligned with industry best practices. Identity management is the process of managing the identities and access rights of users across an organization's systems and resources. Industry best practices provide guidelines and standards for how to implement identity management in a secure, efficient, and compliant manner.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in which of the following states?
- A. Operating system application and database levels
- B. At rest, in transit and in use
- C. Public restricted, and confidential
- D. Data sent, data received, and data deleted
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in all states: at rest, in transit and in use.
This is because DLP solutions are technologies or tools that help to prevent unauthorized or accidental disclosure, modification, or deletion of sensitive or confidential information by users or applications. DLP solutions help to protect information in all states, by applying different types of controls or mechanisms depending on the state of the information. For example, DLP solutions can protect information at rest by encrypting or masking the data stored on devices or media; protect information in transit by inspecting or filtering the data transmitted over networks or channels; and protect information in use by restricting or monitoring the access or usage of the data by users or applications. The other options are not states that strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in, but rather different levels (B), classifications C, or actions (D) that are related to information security.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to information risk management when outsourcing IT function to a third party?
- A. It is difficult to know the applicable regulatory requirements when data is located on another country.
- B. Providers may be restricted from providing detailed ^formation on their employees.
- C. It is difficult to determine vendor financial viability to assess their potential inability to meet contract requirements.
- D. Providers may be reluctant to share technical delays on the extent of their information protection mechanisms.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST challenge to information risk management when outsourcing IT function to a third party is that providers may be reluctant to share technical details on the extent of their information protection mechanisms. This is because providers may consider their information protection mechanisms as proprietary or confidential, or may not want to reveal their weaknesses or vulnerabilities. This makes it difficult for the outsourcing organization to assess the level of security and compliance of the provider, and to monitor and audit their performance. The other options are not as challenging as providers being reluctant to share technical details, because they either involve legal or contractual aspects that can be clarified or negotiated before outsourcing (A, D), or human resource aspects that can be verified or validated by the provider C.
NEW QUESTION # 32
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Maintaining a presence
- B. Reconnaissance
- C. Creating attack tools
- D. Exploitation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is a MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers?
- A. Significant investments and specialized security skills are not required.
- B. Available security services from providers are affordable to enterprises of all sizes.
- C. Enterprises can use the latest technologies to counter threats that are constantly evolving.
- D. SECaaS providers are compliant with specific security requirements and new regulations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers is that significant investments and specialized security skills are not required. SECaaS is a type of cloud service model that provides security solutions and services to customers over the internet. SECaaS providers can offer various security functions such as antivirus, firewall, encryption, identity management, vulnerability scanning, and incident response. By using SECaaS providers, customers can save costs and resources on acquiring, maintaining, and updating security hardware and software. Customers can also leverage the expertise and experience of the SECaaS providers to address their security needs and challenges.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks?
- A. Exfiltration attack vector
- B. Infiltration attack vector
- C. Adversarial threat event
- D. Kill chain modeling
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An example of an attack attribute of an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is designed to remove data from systems and networks is an exfiltration attack vector. An exfiltration attack vector is a method or channel that an APT uses to transfer data from a compromised system or network to an external location. Examples of exfiltration attack vectors include email, FTP, DNS, HTTP, or covert channels.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?
- A. Cybersecurity risk scenarios
- B. Industry-specific security regulator
- C. Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage
- D. Cybersecurity operations management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following BIST enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization?
- A. Security information and event management (SEM)
- B. demit/ and access management (1AM)
- C. Security operations center (SOC)
- D. Security training and awareness
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A security operations center (SOC) is a centralized unit that monitors, detects, analyzes, and responds to cyber threats and incidents in real time. A SOC enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization by using various tools, processes, and expertise.
NEW QUESTION # 37
An IS auditor has learned that a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API). Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors?
- A. Identity spoofing and phishing
- B. Denial of service
- C. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- D. Resource contention
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing for an IS auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors when a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API) is the impact on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the cloud service. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows communication and interaction between different software components or systems. An API is often used by cloud service providers to enable customers to access and manage their cloud resources and services.
However, if an API is not adequately secured, it can expose the cloud service provider and its customers to various threats, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, tampering, denial-of-service attacks, or malicious code injection.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which type of tools look for anomalies in user behavior?
- A. Trend/variance-detection tools
- B. Attack-signature-detection tools
- C. Audit reduction tools
- D. Rootkit detection tools
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Trend/variance-detection tools are tools that look for anomalies in user behavior. These tools use statistical methods to establish a baseline of normal user activity and then compare it with current or historical data to identify deviations or outliers. These tools can help to detect unauthorized access, fraud, insider threats, or other malicious activities.
NEW QUESTION # 39
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