[Jan-2024] PMI CAPM DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS [Q541-Q562] | TestBraindump

[Jan-2024] PMI CAPM DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS [Q541-Q562]

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[Jan-2024] PMI CAPM DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS

2024 New TestBraindump CAPM PDF Recently Updated Questions


To be eligible to take the CAPM exam, candidates must have a secondary degree (high school diploma or equivalent) and either 1,500 hours of project experience or 23 hours of project management education. CAPM exam fee varies depending on whether the candidate is a member of PMI, but typically ranges from $300 to $400. Once certified, CAPM holders must renew their certification every five years by retaking the exam or by earning Professional Development Units (PDUs) through continuing education and professional development activities.

 

NEW QUESTION # 541
Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

  • A. Consensus
  • B. Coaching
  • C. Avoidance
  • D. Influencing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume C


NEW QUESTION # 542
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

  • A. Change log
  • B. Change control tools
  • C. Delphi technique
  • D. Expert judgment

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 543
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

  • A. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.
  • B. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.
  • C. The critical path will have positive total float.
  • D. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
Fast tracking is a compression technique that increases risk and potentially causes rework. Fast tracking is starting two projects previously scheduled to start one after the other at the same time.


NEW QUESTION # 544
What is the purpose of the project management process groups?

  • A. To define a new project
  • B. To link specific process inputs and outputs
  • C. To track and monitor processes easily
  • D. To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 545
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

  • A. Time and Material (T&M)
  • B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
  • C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
  • D. Cost Pius Award Fee (CPAF)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contracts (FPIF). This fixed-price arrangement gives the buyer and seller some flexibility in that it allows for deviation from performance, with financial incentives tied to achieving agreed upon metrics. Typically such financial incentives are related to cost, schedule, or technical performance of the seller.
Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. Under FPIF contracts, a price ceiling is set, and all costs above the price ceiling are the responsibility of the seller, who is obligated to complete the work.


NEW QUESTION # 546
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

  • A. Meetings
  • B. Resource optimization
  • C. Modeling techniques
  • D. Decomposition

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 547
What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

  • A. Resource managers
  • B. Directors
  • C. Customers
  • D. Sponsors

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 548
Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

  • A. Salience model
  • B. Power/interest grid
  • C. Power/influence grid
  • D. Influence/impact grid

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 549
Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

  • A. Stakeholder cube
  • B. Directions of influence
  • C. Power interest grid
  • D. Salience model

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 550
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

  • A. Resource
  • B. Discretionary
  • C. Internal
  • D. Legal

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
6.3.2.2 Dependency Determination
Dependencies may be characterized by the following attributes: mandatory or discretionary, internal or external, as described below. Dependency has four attributes, but two can be applicable at the same time in following ways: mandatory external dependencies, mandatory internal dependencies, discretionary external dependencies, or discretionary internal dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies. Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required or

inherent in the nature of the work. Mandatory dependencies often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project, where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until after the foundation has been built, or on an electronics project, where a prototype has to be built before it can be tested. Mandatory dependencies are also sometimes referred to as hard logic or hard dependencies. Technical dependencies may not be mandatory. The project team determines which dependencies are mandatory during the process of sequencing the activities. Mandatory dependencies should not be confused with assigning schedule constraints in the scheduling tool.
Discretionary dependencies. Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as preferred logic,

preferential logic, or soft logic. Discretionary dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Discretionary dependencies should be fully documented since they can create arbitrary total float values and can limit later scheduling options. When fast tracking techniques are employed, these discretionary dependencies should be reviewed and considered for modifcation or removal. The project team determines which dependencies are discretionary during the process of sequencing the activities.
External dependencies. External dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-

project activities. These dependencies are usually outside the project team's control. For example, the testing activity in a software project may be dependent on the delivery of hardware from an external source, or governmental environmental hearings may need to be held before site preparation can begin on a construction project. The project management team determines which dependencies are external during the process of sequencing the activities.
Internal dependencies. Internal dependencies involve a precedence relationship between project activities

and are generally inside the project team's control. For example, if the team cannot test a machine until they assemble it, this is an internal mandatory dependency. The project management team determines which dependencies are internal during the process of sequencing the activities.


NEW QUESTION # 551
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

  • A. Prototyping.
  • B. Context diagrams.
  • C. Benchmarking.
  • D. Brainstorming.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
5.2.2.8 Prototypes Prototyping is a method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building it. Since a prototype is tangible, it allows stakeholders to experiment with a model of the final product rather than being limited to discussing abstract representations of their requirements. Prototypes support the concept of progressive elaboration in iterative cycles of mock-up creation, user experimentation, feedback generation, and prototype revision. When enough feedback cycles have been performed, the requirements obtained from the prototype are sufficiently complete to move to a design or build phase. Storyboarding is a prototyping technique showing sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations. Storyboards are used on a variety of projects in a variety of industries, such as film, advertising, instructional design, and on agile and other software development projects. In software development, storyboards use mock-ups to show navigation paths through webpages, screens, or other user interfaces.


NEW QUESTION # 552
Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least inclusive?

  • A. Portfolios, projects, then programs
  • B. Portfolios, programs, then projects
  • C. Projects, portfolios, then programs
  • D. Projects, programs, then portfolios

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://www.ims-web.com/blog/the-difference-between-projects-programs-and-portfolios


NEW QUESTION # 553
An element of the project scope statement is:

  • A. High-level risks.
  • B. A stakeholder list.
  • C. Acceptance criteria.
  • D. A summary budget

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 554
Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

  • A. A tool or technique is required
  • B. Requirements keep changing
  • C. An artifact must be produced
  • D. Each project is unique

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 555
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

  • A. Enterprise environmental factors.
  • B. Organizational process assets.
  • C. Earned value management.
  • D. Work performance information.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
4.4.1.5 Work Performance Information
Work performance information is the performance data collected from various controlling processes, analyzed in context, and integrated based on relationships across areas. Thus work performance data has been transformed into work performance information. Data in itself cannot be used in the decision-making process as it has only out-of-context meaning. Work performance information, however, is correlated and contextualized, and provides a sound foundation for project decisions.
Work performance information is circulated through communication processes. Examples of performance information are status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete.


NEW QUESTION # 556
Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

  • A. cost management plan.
  • B. activity list,
  • C. risk management plan,
  • D. risk register.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume E


NEW QUESTION # 557
What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

  • A. Expert judgment and data gathering
  • B. Data analysis and decision making
  • C. Networking and storytelling
  • D. Prototypes and product analysis

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 558
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

  • A. Scope baseline
  • B. Scope management plan
  • C. Scope plan
  • D. Product scope

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.4.3.1 Scope Baseline
The scope baseline is the approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison. It is a component of the project management plan. Components of the scope baseline include:
Project scope statement. The project scope statement includes the description of the project scope,

major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.
WBS. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project

team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work. The WBS is finalized by assigning each work package to a control account and establishing a unique identifier for that work package from a code of accounts. These identifiers provide a structure for hierarchical summation of costs, schedule, and resource information. A control account is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to the earned value for performance measurement. Control accounts are placed at selected management points in the WBS. Each control account may include one or more work packages, but each of the work packages should be associated with only one control account. A control account may include one or more planning packages. A planning package is a work breakdown structure component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.
WBS dictionary. The WBS dictionary is a document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and

scheduling information about each component in the WBS. The WBS dictionary is a document that supports the WBS. Information in the WBS dictionary may include, but is not limited to:
○ Code of account identifier,
○ Description of work,
○ Assumptions and constraints,
○ Responsible organization,
○ Schedule milestones,
○ Associated schedule activities,
○ Resources required,
○ Cost estimates,
○ Quality requirements,
○ Acceptance criteria,
○ Technical references, and
○ Agreement information


NEW QUESTION # 559
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

  • A. Change control plan
  • B. Stakeholder register
  • C. Risk log
  • D. Communications management plan

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
10.1.3.1 Communications Management Plan
The communications management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how project communications will be planned, structured, monitored, and controlled. The plan contains the following information:
Stakeholder communication requirements;

Information to be communicated, including language, format, content, and level of detail;

Reason for the distribution of that information;

Time frame and frequency for the distribution of required information and receipt of acknowledgment or

response, if applicable;
Person responsible for communicating the information;

Person responsible for authorizing release of confidential information;

Person or groups who will receive the information;

Methods or technologies used to convey the information, such as memos, e-mail, and/or press releases;

Resources allocated for communication activities, including time and budget;

Escalation process identifying time frames and the management chain (names) for escalation of issues that

cannot be resolved at a lower staff level;
Method for updating and refining the communications management plan as the project progresses and

develops;
Glossary of common terminology;

Flow charts of the information flow in the project, workflows with possible sequence of authorization, list of

reports, and meeting plans, etc.; and
Communication constraints usually derived from a specific legislation or regulation, technology, and

organizational policies, etc.
The communications management plan can also include guidelines and templates for project status meetings, project team meetings, e-meetings, and e-mail messages. The use of a project website and project management software can also be included if these are to be used in the project


NEW QUESTION # 560
Which is a difference between leadership and management?

  • A. Management focuses on systems and structure; leadership focuses on relationships with people.
  • B. Management focuses on motivation and long-range vision; leadership focuses on near-term goals and problem solving.
  • C. Leadership and management are the same thing and can be used interchangeably.
  • D. Management influences and focuses on relationships with people; leadership focuses on systems and structure.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 561
Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

  • A. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline
  • B. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan
  • C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
  • D. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume E


NEW QUESTION # 562
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